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← Do subatomic particles have free will?

bitbutter's Avatar Jump to comment 105 by bitbutter

dloubet

Random does not equal free will.
Determined does not equal free will.
Why would a mixture of the two equal free will?


This gets to the crux of the matter i think. And it seems clear to me that the answer is no.

Libertarian free will dissolves when you ask someone who believes in it what it actually is. In particular, when you ask what the basis is on which this free will makes its decision about whether to veto courses of action that flow from our desires, character and experience.

We don't, and couldn't have free will, because it's an incoherent concept.

Mon, 18 Aug 2008 01:10:00 UTC | #219930