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Sean Faircloth:
Attack of the Theocrats!
I'm not sure it is possible to make a clear distinction between these ideas. However if we look at modern physics as it is applied in cosmology, we use a curious mixture of relativity theory and quantum theory, without having actually reconciled them. Then the second law of thermodynamics is added in to the mix as it cannot be derived from either as they are both time symmetrical. Incidentally, I quite like Bolzmann's suggestion that the second law is an illusion caused by us experiencing time in the direction of increasing entropy. Speaking of experiencing time, there does not seem to be any reason why we should experience it as flowing rather than, say, experiencing out whole life at once. Maybe we don't need any new physics to deal with this but, if so, it is not obviously so.
Putting it like that is problematical since it assumes that for every event something else which is the cause of it can be identified. That's why I prefer to formulate it Humean terms in terms of descriptions of events falling under universal laws.
Not if like David Chalmers you say the interaction went only one way, from physical substance to mental substance.
Well there are several versions of property dualism the most well known being anomalous monism according to which there are no strict psycho-physical laws.
One motivation is to make sense of statements involving reasons instead of causes. Thus on this view "He ate the toast because he felt hungry" is not even a candidate for a causal statement because there is no strict law relating feeling hungry to eating toast. However it can function as an explanation. For causes you have to look to the physics.
Another is the so-called realization problem. Pain may turn out to be realized in a certain way in humans however other animals, aliens or machines may not possess the same structures and yet, under appropriate circumstances, we might still feel justified in saying they are in pain.
You are mistaking the energy needed for the probe for the energies involved in the processes being investigated. See for instance this quote - it's from Wikipedia but I believe it to be correct:
"2+2=4" is an idea but it isn't anywhere. It may be represented in your brain cells but it does not have to be for you to use it competently. Did you know, for instance, that alligators do not naturally run wild in Norfolk? Is it represented somewhere in your brain cells? Maybe it is now but was it before you read the statement? So did you know it then? The point about knowledge and other ideas is that they are not primarily about representation but about competence. But, although the knowledge is not represented anywhere you would still be able to use it competently. Thus if you came across an alligator while walking your dog you would still be surprised and register this event as something special. Alternatively if someone said he/she saw one you would still display an appropriate degree of skepticism.
Obviously!
If some new physics is needed to account for the brain then obviously it will involve the brain, but so what?
This last statement just seems like a non-sequitur. Why can't I equally well argue that any new physics "hits the problem of causal closure, of the Dirac equation?" What's so special about brain cells that this problem arises with respect to them but not anywhere else?
Permalink Fri, 13 Jul 2012 18:54:45 UTC | #949092